• jsomae@lemmy.ml
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    1
    arrow-down
    1
    ·
    29 days ago

    Your explanation is wrong. There is no reason to believe that “c” has no mapping.

    • CanadaPlus@lemmy.sdf.org
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      1
      ·
      edit-2
      29 days ago

      Yeah, OP seems to be assuming a continuous mapping. It still works if you don’t, but the standard way to prove it is the more abstract “diagonal argument”.

    • CileTheSane@lemmy.ca
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      1
      ·
      29 days ago

      Give me an example of a mapping system for the numbers between 1 and 2 where if you take the average of any 2 sequentially mapped numbers, the number in-between is also mapped.