Even from people that never lived in a communist state

edit: im 17 and i hate communism

  • Dark ArcA
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    7 months ago

    The history of the last 500 years is soaked in the blood of the capitalism.

    That’s a pretty hot take to blame all the conflict that’s happened in the last 500 years on capitalism. I think it’s likely a significant oversimplification at best. For instance, you can argue many things caused (just) WW2 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causes_of_World_War_II

    Voter apathy has nothing to do with it. Enthusiastic voters gave us genocide of indigenous peoples of North America, the nuclear bombing of Japan, and currently a 75 year genocide of Palestinians.

    That’s provably wrong. The voter turn out as a percentage of population is abysmal historically https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voter_turnout_in_United_States_presidential_elections#/media/File:USA_Presidential_Elections_Turnout_by_Share_of_Population.png

    I also find some of your examples, e.g., the Native Americans similarly a red herring. The plight of the Native American peoples is far more complicated than “blame capitalism.”

    Not to mention things that voters do not have even the semblance of a choice, such as CIA activities in the 20th century which led to bloody coups in Indonesia, Chile, and Iran, just to name 3.

    Voters control who is elected. Those that are elected control whether or not the CIA exists. The CIA would disappear tomorrow if only folks that believed the CIA shouldn’t exist were in congress.

    You need to incorporate class analysis or else nothing makes sense.

    No you don’t, it makes plenty of sense without “class analysis.”

    Why do American voters get shitty choices that reduce their power to the advantage of the wealthy oligarch class?

    Because of the people who vote a fraction of them bother with primaries and because it’s hard to find good people to run for office that want to do the job (for a myriad of reasons)?

    Why are there oligarchs if capitalism doesn’t tend to monopoly?

    It’s not an objective thing that “there are oligarchs.”

    Does voting actually do anything?

    Yes, voting matters. See policies under Trump vs policies under Biden. See Net Neutrality. See Climate Change Policy. See EPA Policy.

    It’s frankly anti-intellectual to claim that “voting doesn’t do anything” or even imply as much.

    Why does the electoral college still exist?

    Because people vote for representatives that don’t want to get rid of it?

    Why did Americans support the Iraq War?

    Because people vote for representatives that supported it? Because the general population was not adequately educated and engaged in politics to understand the facts of the situation and was mislead?

    What role did the media serve?

    What role didn’t the media serve? What role should it have served?

    You’re asking leading questions to argue your point similar to a flat-earth or giant-ism conspiracy theorist. Like, these questions do have answers and those answers go far beyond people’s economic classes and dive into a number of cultural, period, regional, and global factors. There isn’t one answer, and the one answer certainly isn’t “because the rich people made us do it.”

    I’m not sure what is your criteria for authoritarian rule.

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Authoritarianism

    Literally, the criteria for authoritarian rule.

    Capitalist countries are authoritarian too

    No, they are not. Some may be, but the vast majority of western capitalistic societies are nowhere near authoritarian rule. The US is creeping towards it and (as elections do matter) may creep closer this year; time will tell.

    it’s basically a meaningless signifier coming out of cold war propaganda that said communism = dictatorship and capitalism = muh freedom

    That is provably false. Look at the governance models of the countries above. They were not “communism = dictatorship” they were “communism and authoritarianism.” For some reason people can’t explain away, those two things go hand and hand.

    My personal take is that when you take away ownership, ownership doesn’t disappear, it just means the state is the owner. So you go from “the rich people and the government officials own the means of production” to “the government officials (that are the rich people) own the means of production” (which is exactly what happened in China).

    The democratic processes in China and Cuba of example are lightyears ahead of what you can find in the US or European parliamentary so-called democracies.

    That’s straight up bull shit. A mono-party rule is not under any circumstance democratic.

    • jackal@lemmy.ml
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      7 months ago

      Can you explain one thing about how the Chinese or Cuban elections work without looking it up?

      • Dark ArcA
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        7 months ago

        Would it change any of your opinion if I did?

        But yes, I can (for China), I can explain the important part … which is that the CCP required to rubber stamp any nomination to run for office. There is no democracy when your rule can not be meaningfully challenged.

        This is furthered by the infringement of rights that is the great firewall.

        EDIT: For anyone who actually is reading this and wants a source instead of “he (I) said, the other person said” here’s some information fairly well compiled: https://decodingchina.eu/democracy/